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Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Selection Test 2026: Exam on 13 December, Admit Card Download @navodaya.gov.in
Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Selection Test (JNVST) 2026 की आधिकारिक घोषणा हो चुकी है। देशभर के लाखों छात्र इस परीक्षा का इंतजार कर रहे थे, जिसके माध्यम से कक्षा 6वीं में प्रवेश दिया जाता है। इस वर्ष की परीक्षा 13 दिसंबर 2025 (शनिवार) को आयोजित की जाएगी।
🗓️ JNVST 2026 Exam Date
परीक्षा का नाम: Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Selection Test (JNVST) 2026
कक्षा: 6वीं (Session 2026–27)
परीक्षा तिथि: 13 दिसंबर 2025 (शनिवार)
आयोजक संस्था: Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS)
आधिकारिक वेबसाइट: https://navodaya.gov.in
🎫 Admit Card Download Information
JNVST 2026 का Admit Card परीक्षा से लगभग 2–3 सप्ताह पहले जारी किया जाएगा। छात्र इसे Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti की आधिकारिक वेबसाइट से डाउनलोड कर सकेंगे।
डाउनलोड प्रक्रिया:
1. वेबसाइट navodaya.gov.in पर जाएँ।
2. “JNVST 2026 Admit Card” लिंक पर क्लिक करें।
3. अपना रजिस्ट्रेशन नंबर और जन्मतिथि दर्ज करें।
4. एडमिट कार्ड डाउनलोड कर उसका प्रिंट निकाल लें।
एडमिट कार्ड पर परीक्षा केंद्र, रिपोर्टिंग टाइम, और आवश्यक निर्देश दिए होंगे।
🧮 Exam Pattern & Syllabus
JNVST 2026 परीक्षा 80 अंकों की होगी और अवधि 2 घंटे की रहेगी।
कुल 3 खंड होंगे —
1. Mental Ability Test (MAT) – 40 अंक
2. Arithmetic Test – 20 अंक
3. Language Test – 20 अंक
सभी प्रश्न Objective Type (बहुविकल्पीय) होंगे और OMR शीट पर उत्तर देने होंगे।
💡 Preparation Tips for Students
पिछले वर्षों के प्रश्न पत्र हल करें ताकि प्रश्नों के पैटर्न को समझ सकें।
रोजाना कम से कम 2 घंटे Mental Ability की प्रैक्टिस करें।
गणित के बेसिक कॉन्सेप्ट्स जैसे भिन्न, अनुपात, प्रतिशत पर ध्यान दें।
भाषा खंड के लिए पठन एवं शब्द ज्ञान का अभ्यास करें।
परीक्षा के दिन पर्याप्त नींद और आत्मविश्वास के साथ परीक्षा दें।
Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Selection Test 2026 ग्रामीण प्रतिभाशाली छात्रों के लिए सुनहरा अवसर है। जो छात्र नवोदय विद्यालय में शिक्षा प्राप्त करना चाहते हैं, उनके लिए यह परीक्षा बेहद महत्वपूर्ण है। इसलिए समय पर तैयारी शुरू करें और नियमित रूप से navodaya.gov.in वेबसाइट पर अपडेट्स चेक करते रहें।
Sr. No. | Year | Download |
1. | Navodaya Class 6 Previous Year – 2010 | Download |
2. | Navodaya Class 6 Previous Year - 2011 | Download |
3. | Navodaya Class 6 Previous Year - 2012 | Download |
4. | Navodaya Class 6 Previous Year – 2013 | Download |
5. | Navodaya Class 6 Previous Year – 2014 | Download |
6. | Navodaya Class 6 Previous Year – 2015 | Download |
7. | Navodaya Class 6 Previous Year – 2016 | Download |
8. | Navodaya Class 6 Previous Year – 2017 | Download |
9. | Navodaya Class 6 Previous Year – 2018 | Download |
10. | Navodaya Class 6 Previous Year – 2019 | Download |
Sr. no. | Topic | Link |
1. | महत्वपूर्ण सूत्रमाला | |
2. | संख्या और संख्या पद्वति | Set-1, Set-2 |
3. | भिन्नात्मक संख्याएं | Set-1, Set-2 |
4. | दशमलव भिन्न | |
5. | ऐकिक नियम | Set-1, Set-2 |
6. | लघुत्तम समापवर्तक एवं महत्तम समापवर्तक | |
7. | औसत | |
8. | प्रतिशतता | |
9. | लाभ और हानि | |
10. | साधारण ब्याज | |
11. | समय और दूरी | |
12. | क्षेत्रफल और आयतन | |
13. | संख्या श्रृंखला | |
14. | समय और घड़ी | |
15. | ग्राफ और चित्रलेख | |
16. | पिछले वर्ष का प्रश्न पत्र |
Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) और Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS) ने Recruitment Notification 01/2025 जारी कर दी है। इस भर्ती के तहत देशभर के केंद्रीय विद्यालयों और नवोदय विद्यालयों में Teaching और Non-Teaching पदों पर भर्ती की जाएगी। आवेदन प्रक्रिया CBSE की आधिकारिक वेबसाइट पर ऑनलाइन होगी।
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🏫 कुल पद (Vacancies)
इस भर्ती में कुल हजारों पद शामिल हैं, जिनमें शामिल हैं —
Assistant Commissioner, Principal, Vice Principal
PGT, TGT, PRT, Librarian
Special Educator, Computer Teacher, Music Teacher
Administrative, Finance, Assistant & Clerk Posts
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📘 संस्था: Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) & Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS)
📅 Notification No.: 01/2025
🌐 Official Websites:
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📋 महत्वपूर्ण तिथियाँ (Important Dates)
Online आवेदन प्रारंभ: 14 November 2025
अंतिम तिथि: 4 December 2025
Admit Card: परीक्षा से कुछ सप्ताह पहले
Exam Date: आधिकारिक वेबसाइट पर अलग से जारी होग
🎓 पात्रता (Eligibility Criteria)
पात्रता पदानुसार अलग-अलग है:
PGT / TGT / PRT के लिए NCTE से मान्यता प्राप्त B.Ed. / Integrated B.Ed.–M.Ed. आवश्यक है।
Principal/Vice Principal के लिए अनुभव और शिक्षण योग्यता जरूरी।
Non-Teaching पदों के लिए आवश्यक योग्यता 10वीं, 12वीं, Graduation, या संबंधित डिप्लोमा के अनुसार है।
📌 विस्तृत योग्यता और आयु सीमा के लिए आधिकारिक PDF पढ़ें।
PDF - Click Here
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💰 वेतनमान (Pay Scale)
Assistant Commissioner / Principal: ₹78,800 – ₹2,09,200
Vice Principal / PGT: ₹47,600 – ₹1,77,500
TGT: ₹44,900 – ₹1,42,400
PRT / Clerical / Other Posts: ₹18,000 – ₹56,900 तक
👉 NVS के शिक्षकों को 10% Special Residential Allowance भी मिलेगा।
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🧾 आवेदन प्रक्रिया (How to Apply Online)
1. आधिकारिक वेबसाइट cbse.gov.in या navodaya.gov.in पर जाएँ।
2. “Recruitment Notification 01/2025” लिंक पर क्लिक करें।
3. नया रजिस्ट्रेशन करें और आवेदन फॉर्म भरें।
4. आवश्यक दस्तावेज़ अपलोड करें।
5. फीस का भुगतान कर फॉर्म सबमिट करें।
6. भविष्य के लिए प्रिंटआउट सुरक्षित रखें।
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📌 चयन प्रक्रिया (Selection Process)
Written Test (CBT)
Interview / Skill Test (Post के अनुसार)
Document Verification
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🔍 निष्कर्ष (Conclusion)
यह भर्ती शिक्षकों और शिक्षा क्षेत्र में कार्यरत युवाओं के लिए एक शानदार अवसर है। जो उम्मीदवार KVS या NVS में करियर बनाना चाहते हैं, वे समय रहते आवेदन करें।
नई जानकारी, आवेदन लिंक, और Admit Card अपडेट्स के लिए आधिकारिक वेबसाइट पर नियमित विजिट करें।
1. RTE ACT 2009
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For more details
1. RTE ACT 2009
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1. Learning disabilities are primarily related to problems in:
A) Intelligence
B) Vision and hearing only
C) Information processing and understanding
D) Physical coordination
Answer: C) Information processing and understanding
1. RTE ACT 2009
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2. The term “learning disability” was first introduced by:
A) Samuel Kirk
B) Jean Piaget
C) J.P. Das
D) Howard Gardner
Answer: A) Samuel Kirk
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3. Which of the following is not a type of learning disability?
A) Dyslexia
B) Dysgraphia
C) Dyscalculia
D) Dyspnea
Answer: D) Dyspnea
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4. Dyslexia affects a child’s ability to:
A) Write
B) Read
C) Count
D) Speak
Answer: B) Read
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5. Dysgraphia primarily affects:
A) Reading
B) Writing
C) Arithmetic
D) Memory
Answer: B) Writing
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6. Difficulty in understanding numbers and mathematical concepts is known as:
A) Dyslexia
B) Dyscalculia
C) Dyspraxia
D) Dysphasia
Answer: B) Dyscalculia
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7. Dyspraxia is a difficulty in:
A) Language comprehension
B) Motor coordination
C) Memory retention
D) Hearing
Answer: B) Motor coordination
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8. A child with normal intelligence but poor academic performance may have:
A) Emotional disturbance
B) Learning disability
C) Intellectual disability
D) Sensory impairment
Answer: B) Learning disability
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9. Which of the following is not a cause of learning disabilities?
A) Brain injury
B) Genetic factors
C) Poor teaching methods
D) Chromosomal abnormalities
Answer: C) Poor teaching methods
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10. Learning disabilities are usually:
A) Temporary
B) Permanent and lifelong
C) Infectious
D) Caused by laziness
Answer: B) Permanent and lifelong
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11. The early signs of learning disability can often be detected:
A) Before birth
B) In early childhood
C) Only after secondary school
D) Only after IQ testing
Answer: B) In early childhood
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12. The most common learning disability is:
A) Dyslexia
B) Dysgraphia
C) Dyscalculia
D) Dyspraxia
Answer: A) Dyslexia
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13. A child reverses letters such as ‘b’ and ‘d’ or ‘p’ and ‘q’. This indicates:
A) Dysgraphia
B) Dyslexia
C) Dyspraxia
D) Dyscalculia
Answer: B) Dyslexia
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14. Which of the following statements is true about learning disabilities?
A) They can be cured completely with medication
B) They are related to motivation problems
C) They occur in children with average or above-average intelligence
D) They are caused by poor parenting
Answer: C) They occur in children with average or above-average intelligence
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15. Which professional helps in diagnosing learning disabilities?
A) Neurologist
B) Special educator
C) Clinical psychologist
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
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16. The main educational approach for students with learning disabilities is:
A) Strict discipline
B) Punishment for errors
C) Remedial teaching
D) Rote memorization
Answer: C) Remedial teaching
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17. Which of the following tests is used to identify learning disabilities?
A) Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test
B) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC)
C) Aptitude Test
D) Personality Inventory
Answer: B) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC)
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18. Students with learning disabilities benefit most from:
A) Oral examinations only
B) Individualized Education Plan (IEP)
C) Group punishment
D) Extra homework
Answer: B) Individualized Education Plan (IEP)
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19. The use of multisensory methods is most effective for:
A) Normal learners only
B) Gifted children
C) Children with learning disabilities
D) Slow learners
Answer: C) Children with learning disabilities
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20. Which is a symptom of dyscalculia?
A) Difficulty in reading
B) Difficulty in spelling
C) Confusion in mathematical symbols
D) Poor motor coordination
Answer: C) Confusion in mathematical symbols
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21. Which of the following is not associated with learning disability?
A) ADHD
B) Poor memory
C) Vision problem
D) Fever
Answer: D) Fever
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22. The Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 emphasizes inclusion of:
A) Only normal students
B) Only gifted children
C) Children with disabilities
D) Only economically poor children
Answer: C) Children with disabilities
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23. Learning disabilities can be best managed by:
A) Early identification and intervention
B) Ignoring the problem
C) Repeating the same grade
D) Punishment for mistakes
Answer: A) Early identification and intervention
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24. The term “Specific Learning Disability (SLD)” refers to:
A) All forms of intellectual disabilities
B) Difficulty in one or more academic areas despite normal intelligence
C) Emotional disturbance
D) Sensory impairments
Answer: B) Difficulty in one or more academic areas despite normal intelligence
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25. Children with learning disabilities often show difficulty in:
A) Organizing tasks and materials
B) Social interactions
C) Time management
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
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26. Inclusive Education means:
A) Teaching disabled students separately
B) Educating all children together with suitable support
C) Excluding children with disabilities
D) Only special schools for disabled
Answer: B) Educating all children together with suitable support
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27. The most effective classroom strategy for dyslexic learners is:
A) Repetition and memorization
B) Phonics-based instruction
C) Dictation and punishment
D) Copying from the board
Answer: B) Phonics-based instruction
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28. A student has excellent oral skills but very poor written expression. This indicates:
A) Dyscalculia
B) Dysgraphia
C) Dyspraxia
D) Dyslexia
Answer: B) Dysgraphia
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29. Learning disabilities are classified under which act in India?
A) RTE Act 2009
B) RPwD Act 2016 (Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act)
C) National Education Policy 2020
D) POCSO Act 2012
Answer: B) RPwD Act 2016
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30. The key goal of teaching students with learning disabilities is to:
A) Reduce curriculum load only
B) Help them achieve success through adapted methods
C) Separate them from mainstream classes
D) Label them for special treatment
Answer: B) Help them achieve success through adapted methods
🧠 अधिगम अक्षमता (Learning Disabilities) – 30 MCQs with Answer
1. अधिगम अक्षमता का अर्थ है —
A) सामान्य बुद्धि में कमी
B) अधिगम प्रक्रिया में विशेष कठिनाई
C) शारीरिक अक्षमता
D) मानसिक मंदता
उत्तर: B) अधिगम प्रक्रिया में विशेष कठिनाई
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2. "डिस्लेक्सिया" किस प्रकार की समस्या है?
A) लेखन संबंधी
B) पठन संबंधी
C) गणितीय कौशल संबंधी
D) भाषण संबंधी
उत्तर: B) पठन संबंधी
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3. "डिस्ग्राफिया" का संबंध है —
A) गणितीय गणना से
B) लेखन कौशल से
C) वाचन कौशल से
D) श्रवण शक्ति से
उत्तर: B) लेखन कौशल से
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4. "डिस्कैल्कुलिया" किससे संबंधित है?
A) भाषा
B) गणितीय कौशल
C) मोटर कौशल
D) दृष्टि कौशल
उत्तर: B) गणितीय कौशल
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5. "डिस्लेक्सिया" वाले बच्चे को किसमें कठिनाई होती है?
A) बोलने में
B) सुनने में
C) पढ़ने में
D) समझने में
उत्तर: C) पढ़ने में
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6. "डिस्ग्राफिया" वाले विद्यार्थी को सबसे अधिक कठिनाई होती है —
A) गणना करने में
B) स्पष्ट लिखने में
C) पढ़ने में
D) सुनने में
उत्तर: B) स्पष्ट लिखने में
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7. "डिस्कैल्कुलिया" से पीड़ित छात्र को —
A) अक्षर पहचानने में कठिनाई
B) संख्याओं और गणितीय अवधारणाओं में कठिनाई
C) चित्र बनाने में कठिनाई
D) बोलने में कठिनाई
उत्तर: B) संख्याओं और गणितीय अवधारणाओं में कठिनाई
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8. "डिस्लोक्सिया" का अर्थ है —
A) मोटर (गतिक) कौशल की समस्या
B) भाषाई समस्या
C) पठन समस्या
D) स्मृति समस्या
उत्तर: A) मोटर (गतिक) कौशल की समस्या
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9. "डिस्फेसिया" किस प्रकार की समस्या है?
A) भाषा उत्पादन या वाक् क्षमता संबंधी विकार
B) गणितीय कौशल विकार
C) स्मृति विकार
D) दृष्टि विकार
उत्तर: A) भाषा उत्पादन या वाक् क्षमता संबंधी विकार
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10. "डिस्मोफिया" का संबंध है —
A) भ्रम या गलत धारणा से
B) लिखने की समस्या से
C) भाषण विकार से
D) गणितीय कठिनाई से
उत्तर: A) भ्रम या गलत धारणा से
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11. "डिस्थीमिया" का अर्थ है —
A) भाषा विकार
B) गंभीर तनाव या अवसाद की अवस्था
C) पठन विकार
D) गणितीय विकार
उत्तर: B) गंभीर तनाव या अवसाद की अवस्था
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12. "प्रोजेरिया" किससे संबंधित है?
A) जल्दी बूढ़ा दिखने की अवस्था
B) मोटर विकार
C) दृष्टि विकार
D) भाषा विकार
उत्तर: A) जल्दी बूढ़ा दिखने की अवस्था
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13. "अफेजिया" किससे संबंधित है?
A) भाषा संप्रेषण में कठिनाई
B) श्रवण शक्ति की कमी
C) गणना में कठिनाई
D) स्मरण शक्ति में कठिनाई
उत्तर: A) भाषा संप्रेषण में कठिनाई
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14. "डिमेंसिया" का अर्थ है —
A) स्मरण शक्ति संबंधी विकार
B) दृष्टि विकार
C) मोटर कौशल विकार
D) वाचन कौशल विकार
उत्तर: A) स्मरण शक्ति संबंधी विकार
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15. "बुलीमिया" से आशय है —
A) अधिक बोलने की प्रवृत्ति
B) भोजन ग्रहण संबंधी विकार
C) कम सुनने की प्रवृत्ति
D) भावनात्मक समस्या
उत्तर: B) भोजन ग्रहण संबंधी विकार
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16. अधिगम अक्षमता वाले बच्चे की सामान्य बुद्धि होती है —
A) कम
B) औसत या औसत से अधिक
C) अत्यधिक कम
D) मापना असंभव
उत्तर: B) औसत या औसत से अधिक
---
17. अधिगम अक्षमता का मुख्य कारण है —
A) आलस्य
B) मस्तिष्क की कार्यात्मक गड़बड़ी
C) अनुशासनहीनता
D) खराब शिक्षक
उत्तर: B) मस्तिष्क की कार्यात्मक गड़बड़ी
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18. अधिगम अक्षमता का पता किस आयु में लगाया जा सकता है?
A) किशोरावस्था में
B) बाल्यावस्था में
C) वयस्क अवस्था में
D) वृद्धावस्था में
उत्तर: B) बाल्यावस्था में
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19. अधिगम अक्षमता किससे भिन्न होती है?
A) बुद्धि दोष से
B) श्रवण दोष से
C) दृष्टि दोष से
D) उपरोक्त सभी से
उत्तर: D) उपरोक्त सभी से
---
20. अधिगम अक्षमता का निदान कौन करता है?
A) डॉक्टर
B) विशेष शिक्षक और मनोवैज्ञानिक
C) प्रधानाध्यापक
D) माता-पिता
उत्तर: B) विशेष शिक्षक और मनोवैज्ञानिक
---
21. "डिस्लेक्सिया" शब्द का प्रयोग सबसे पहले किसने किया?
A) सैमुअल किर्क
B) हावर्ड गार्डनर
C) पियाजे
D) बिने
उत्तर: A) सैमुअल किर्क
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22. अधिगम अक्षमता से प्रभावित बच्चे के लिए सबसे प्रभावी पद्धति है —
A) रटने की पद्धति
B) दंड आधारित शिक्षण
C) उपचारात्मक शिक्षण (Remedial Teaching)
D) प्रतियोगिता आधारित शिक्षण
उत्तर: C) उपचारात्मक शिक्षण (Remedial Teaching)
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23. अधिगम अक्षमता वाले बच्चों के लिए आवश्यक है —
A) व्यक्तिगत ध्यान
B) प्रेरणा और सहयोग
C) धैर्य और प्रोत्साहन
D) उपरोक्त सभी
उत्तर: D) उपरोक्त सभी
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24. अधिगम अक्षमता का संबंध किससे है?
A) संज्ञानात्मक प्रक्रिया
B) भावनात्मक विकास
C) शारीरिक विकास
D) पर्यावरणीय स्थिति
उत्तर: A) संज्ञानात्मक प्रक्रिया
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25. अधिगम अक्षमता को भारतीय कानून में किस अधिनियम के अंतर्गत मान्यता दी गई है?
A) शिक्षा का अधिकार अधिनियम, 2009
B) विकलांगजन अधिकार अधिनियम, 2016
C) बाल संरक्षण अधिनियम, 2012
D) संविधान की धारा 21(A)
उत्तर: B) विकलांगजन अधिकार अधिनियम, 2016
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26. "डिस्लेक्सिया" से ग्रस्त छात्र में कौन-सी प्रवृत्ति अधिक दिखती है?
A) अक्षरों का उल्टा पढ़ना
B) गिनती जल्दी करना
C) चित्रकला में रुचि
D) खेल में कुशलता
उत्तर: A) अक्षरों का उल्टा पढ़ना
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27. अधिगम अक्षमता वाले छात्रों के लिए उपयुक्त मूल्यांकन तरीका है —
A) मौखिक परीक्षा
B) लचीला एवं वैकल्पिक मूल्यांकन
C) कठोर परीक्षा
D) समूह मूल्यांकन
उत्तर: B) लचीला एवं वैकल्पिक मूल्यांकन
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28. "मल्टीसेन्सरी एप्रोच" का अर्थ है —
A) केवल सुनकर सीखना
B) केवल देखकर सीखना
C) इंद्रियों के समन्वित प्रयोग से सीखना
D) स्मरण शक्ति से सीखना
उत्तर: C) इंद्रियों के समन्वित प्रयोग से सीखना
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29. अधिगम अक्षमता वाले बच्चों की सहायता में कौन-सा उपकरण सहायक है?
A) ऑडियो बुक्स
B) स्पीच-टू-टेक्स्ट सॉफ्टवेयर
C) विशेष शिक्षण सामग्री
D) उपरोक्त सभी
उत्तर: D) उपरोक्त सभी
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30. अधिगम अक्षमता वाले विद्यार्थियों को मुख्यतः क्या चाहिए?
A) प्रतियोगिता
B) दंड और अनुशासन
C) समझ, सहयोग और विशेष शिक्षण
D) अलग स्कूल
उत्तर: C) समझ, सहयोग और विशेष शिक्षण
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 came into force on which date?
A) 1st January 2017
B) 19th April 2017
C) 27th December 2016
D) 1st October 2017
✅ Answer: B) 19th April 2017
Explanation: The Act was notified on 19 April 2017 vide Notification No. S.O. 1215(E), Gazette of India.
1. RTE ACT 2009
2. The Act gives effect to which international convention?
A) UN Convention on Child Rights
B) UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD)
C) ILO Convention on Employment of Disabled Persons
D) WHO Global Disability Charter
✅ Answer: B) UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
Explanation: The 2016 Act implements the UNCRPD (2006) ratified by India on 1 October 2007.
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3. What is the minimum percentage of disability required to be considered a “person with benchmark disability”?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
✅ Answer: B) 40%
Explanation: As per Section 2(r), a benchmark disability means not less than 40% of a specified disability.
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4. Which section defines “person with disability”?
A) Section 2(r)
B) Section 2(s)
C) Section 2(c)
D) Section 3
✅ Answer: B) Section 2(s)
Explanation: Section 2(s) defines it as a person with long-term physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairment hindering full participation.
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5. The Act replaced which earlier legislation?
A) The Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995
B) The Mental Health Act, 1987
C) The Rehabilitation Council Act, 1992
D) The Equal Opportunities Act, 1999
✅ Answer: A) The Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995.
Explanation: Section 102 repeals the 1995 Act.
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6. The appropriate government under the Act refers to:
A) Central Government only
B) State Government only
C) Both Central and State Governments depending on establishment
D) Local authority only
✅ Answer: C) Both Central and State Governments
Explanation: Defined in Section 2(b) — depends on whether the establishment is under the Centre or State.
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7. “Barrier” is defined in which section?
A) Section 2(c)
B) Section 2(m)
C) Section 2(l)
D) Section 2(ca)
✅ Answer: A) Section 2(c)
Explanation: Includes physical, social, attitudinal, and institutional factors hampering participation.
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8. Which section ensures Equality and Non-discrimination?
A) Section 2
B) Section 3
C) Section 4
D) Section 5
✅ Answer: B) Section 3
Explanation: Section 3 mandates equality, dignity, and prohibition of discrimination.
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9. Protection from cruelty and inhuman treatment is covered under:
A) Section 5
B) Section 6
C) Section 7
D) Section 9
✅ Answer: B) Section 6
Explanation: Section 6 directs the government to protect against torture, inhuman or degrading treatment.
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10. Section 7 of the Act deals with:
A) Abuse, violence and exploitation
B) Employment discrimination
C) Guardianship
D) Accessibility in voting
✅ Answer: A) Abuse, violence and exploitation
Explanation: Section 7 prescribes protective and rehabilitative measures for victims.
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11. Section 11 of the Act mandates accessibility in:
A) Public transport
B) Health services
C) Voting
D) Education
✅ Answer: C) Voting
Explanation: The Election Commission must ensure accessible polling stations and materials.
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12. “Limited guardianship” is explained in which section?
A) Section 12
B) Section 13
C) Section 14
D) Section 15
✅ Answer: C) Section 14
Explanation: It means a joint decision-making system between guardian and person with disability.
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13. Section 16 relates to:
A) Employment rights
B) Inclusive education
C) Health and rehabilitation
D) Access to justice
✅ Answer: B) Inclusive education
Explanation: It directs educational institutions to provide inclusive, barrier-free education.
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14. The first survey of school-going children with disabilities must be conducted within:
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
✅ Answer: B) 2 years
Explanation: Section 17(a) — first survey within two years from commencement; thereafter every five years.
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15. Minimum reservation for persons with benchmark disabilities in higher educational institutions:
A) 2%
B) 3%
C) 4%
D) 5%
✅ Answer: D) 5%
Explanation: Section 32(1) mandates not less than 5% reservation.
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16. Reservation in government employment for persons with benchmark disabilities:
A) 3%
B) 4%
C) 5%
D) 6%
✅ Answer: B) 4%
Explanation: Section 34 — 4% of vacancies reserved for benchmark disabilities.
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17. The term “Special Employment Exchange” is defined under:
A) Section 2(zb)
B) Section 35
C) Section 36
D) Section 19
✅ Answer: A) Section 2(zb)
Explanation: Defined as an office to collect and furnish employment information for disabled persons.
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18. The Act provides 5% reservation in poverty alleviation and development schemes under:
A) Section 35
B) Section 36
C) Section 37
D) Section 38
✅ Answer: C) Section 37
Explanation: Section 37 — 5% reservation in land allotment, housing, and development programmes.
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19. Section 39 mandates:
A) Legal guardianship
B) Awareness campaigns
C) Employment incentives
D) Insurance schemes
✅ Answer: B) Awareness campaigns
Explanation: Governments must conduct sensitisation and awareness programmes.
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20. Time limit for making existing public buildings accessible:
A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 5 years
D) 10 years
✅ Answer: C) 5 years
Explanation: Section 45(1) — within 5 years of notification of accessibility rules.
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21. Which section mandates accessibility to transport?
A) Section 40
B) Section 41
C) Section 42
D) Section 43
✅ Answer: B) Section 41
Explanation: Ensures accessible bus stops, stations, airports, and roads.
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22. “Human resource development” in disability context is covered under:
A) Section 46
B) Section 47
C) Section 48
D) Section 49
✅ Answer: B) Section 47
Explanation: Provides for training and sensitisation of officials, teachers, and professionals.
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23. Who appoints the competent authority for registration of disability institutions?
A) Central Government
B) State Government
C) Chief Commissioner
D) NITI Aayog
✅ Answer: B) State Government
Explanation: Section 49 — State Government appoints the competent authority.
24. The certificate of registration for institutions is valid for:
A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) As prescribed by State Government
D) Indefinite
✅ Answer: C) As prescribed by State Government
Explanation: Section 51(4)(a) — validity as per period prescribed by State Government.
25. Appeal against refusal or revocation of registration under Section 53 lies to:
A) Chief Commissioner
B) State Commissioner
C) Appellate authority notified by State Government
D) District Magistrate
✅ Answer: C) Appellate authority notified by State Government
Explanation: Section 53 — provides right to appeal within prescribed titile
26. Guidelines for assessment of specified disabilities are notified by:
A) State Government
B) Central Government
C) Chief Commissioner
D) National Advisory Board
✅ Answer: B) Central Government
Explanation: Section 56 empowers the Central Government to issue guidelines for assessing specified disabilities.
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27. Certificate of disability issued under this Act is valid:
A) In the State only
B) Across India
C) Only in the district of issue
D) For five years only
✅ Answer: B) Across India
Explanation: Section 58(3) states that a certificate of disability shall be valid throughout the country.
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28. Appeal against decision of certifying authority lies under:
A) Section 59
B) Section 56
C) Section 60
D) Section 55
✅ Answer: A) Section 59
Explanation: Section 59 provides for appeal against certifying authority to an appellate authority designated by the State Government.
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29. The Central Advisory Board on Disability is constituted under:
A) Section 60
B) Section 61
C) Section 65
D) Section 66
✅ Answer: A) Section 60
Explanation: Section 60 mandates the Central Government to constitute the Board for national-level policy and coordination.
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30. The Chairperson of the Central Advisory Board on Disability is:
A) Prime Minister of India
B) Minister in charge of Department of Disability Affairs
C) Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities
D) Cabinet Secretary
✅ Answer: B) Minister in charge of Department of Disability Affairs
Explanation: Section 60(2)(a) designates the Minister as Chairperson ex officio.
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31. The State Advisory Board on Disability must meet at least:
A) Once a month
B) Once every three months
C) Once every six months
D) Once a year
✅ Answer: C) Once every six months
Explanation: Section 70 requires biannual meetings to review State-level implementation.
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32. The Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities is appointed under:
A) Section 74
B) Section 75
C) Section 77
D) Section 78
✅ Answer: A) Section 74
Explanation: Section 74 empowers the Central Government to appoint a Chief Commissioner and additional commissioners.
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33. The functions of the Chief Commissioner are detailed in:
A) Section 74
B) Section 75
C) Section 76
D) Section 77
✅ Answer: B) Section 75
Explanation: Section 75 enumerates the Chief Commissioner’s duties—monitoring implementation and handling complaints.
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34. Who appoints the State Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities?
A) Central Government
B) Governor of State
C) State Government
D) Chief Minister
✅ Answer: C) State Government
Explanation: Section 79 empowers State Governments to appoint their own Commissioners.
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35. The State Commissioner submits annual reports to:
A) Chief Minister
B) Chief Commissioner
C) State Government
D) Governor and Legislature
✅ Answer: C) State Government
Explanation: Section 83 requires annual and special reports to the State Government.
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36. Section 84 provides for establishment of:
A) Special Court
B) Advisory Board
C) Disability Tribunal
D) Rehabilitation Council
✅ Answer: A) Special Court
Explanation: Section 84 directs State Governments to establish Special Courts to try offences under the Act.
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37. The Special Public Prosecutor for such court is appointed under:
A) Section 84
B) Section 85
C) Section 86
D) Section 87
✅ Answer: B) Section 85
Explanation: Section 85 empowers State Government to appoint a Special Public Prosecutor with ten years’ experience.
38. The National Fund for Persons with Disabilities is constituted under:
A) Section 86
B) Section 87
C) Section 88
D) Section 89
✅ Answer: A) Section 86
Explanation: Chapter XIV establishes the National Fund to support projects and schemes for persons with disabilities.
39. The State Fund for Persons with Disabilities is provided under:
A) Section 87
B) Section 88
C) Section 89
D) Section 90
✅ Answer: B) Section 88
Explanation: Each State Government must constitute a separate State Fund for implementation purposes.
40. Punishment for contravention of provisions of the Act is under:
A) Section 89
B) Section 90
C) Section 91
D) Section 92
✅ Answer: A) Section 89
Explanation: Section 89 prescribes penalties for violations of the Act or rules.
41. Punishment for fraudulently availing benefits meant for persons with benchmark disabilities is given in:
A) Section 90
B) Section 91
C) Section 92
D) Section 95
✅ Answer: B) Section 91
Explanation: Fraudulent benefit claims are punishable under Section 91.
42. Punishment for offences of atrocities against persons with disabilities is under:
A) Section 89
B) Section 92
C) Section 93
D) Section 94
✅ Answer: B) Section 92
Explanation: Section 92 lists specific atrocity offences and prescribes imprisonment and fine.
43. The Act provides for “Alternative punishments” under:
A) Section 94
B) Section 95
C) Section 96
D) Section 98
✅ Answer: B) Section 95
Explanation: Section 95 allows alternative penalties for certain offences under this Act.
44. Which section ensures protection of action taken in good faith?
A) Section 97
B) Section 98
C) Section 99
D) Section 96
✅ Answer: A) Section 97
Explanation: Section 97 protects officers acting in good faith from legal proceedings.
45. Power to remove difficulties arising in implementation of the Act is conferred on:
A) State Government
B) Chief Commissioner
C) Central Government
D) Parliament
✅ Answer: C) Central Government
Explanation: Section 98 authorises the Central Government to remove implementation difficulties.
46. Which section empowers the Central Government to make rules for implementation?
A) Section 99
B) Section 100
C) Section 101
D) Section 102
✅ Answer: B) Section 100
Explanation: Section 100 confers rule-making power on the Central Government.
47. The State Government may make rules under:
A) Section 100
B) Section 101
C) Section 102
D) Section 103
✅ Answer: B) Section 101
Explanation: Section 101 empowers States to frame rules to carry out provisions of the Act.
48. Repeal and savings are contained in:
A) Section 100
B) Section 101
C) Section 102
D) Section 103
✅ Answer: C) Section 102
Explanation: Section 102 repeals the 1995 Act while preserving actions already taken under it.
49. How many types of disabilities are specified in the Schedule to the Act?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 21
D) 25
✅ Answer: C) 21
Explanation: The Schedule lists 21 categories including blindness, autism, and thalassemia.
50. Which section provides that nothing in this Act shall bar the application of other laws?
A) Section 96
B) Section 97
C) Section 98
D) Section 99
✅ Answer: A) Section 96
Explanation: Section 96 clarifies that the Act does not bar application of other laws favourable to persons with disabilities
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51. The primary objective of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 is to:
A) Provide reservation in education only
B) Give effect to the UNCRPD and ensure equality, dignity and rights for persons with disabilities
C) Replace social security laws
D) Create only medical facilities for disabled persons
✅ Answer: B) Give effect to the UNCRPD and ensure equality, dignity and rights
Explanation: The Preamble clarifies that the Act gives effect to the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and ensures their empowerment.
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52. Which of the following is not a principle enshrined in the UNCRPD adopted in the Act?
A) Equality of opportunity
B) Accessibility
C) Right to free property
D) Respect for inherent dignity
✅ Answer: C) Right to free property
Explanation: The Act incorporates UNCRPD principles like non-discrimination, accessibility, and dignity (not property rights).
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53. “High support” means:
A) Occasional help from NGOs
B) Intensive support needed for daily activities and decision-making
C) Financial help from government only
D) Medical treatment for all disabled persons
✅ Answer: B) Intensive support needed for daily activities and decision-making
Explanation: Section 2(l) defines “high support” as intensive physical, psychological, or other assistance required by persons with benchmark disabilities.
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54. “Inclusive education” under Section 2(m) means:
A) Separate schools for disabled students
B) Education system where students with and without disabilities learn together
C) Online education only
D) Home-based education exclusively
✅ Answer: B) Education system where students with and without disabilities learn together
Explanation: Section 2(m) emphasizes inclusion and adaptation to meet diverse learning needs.
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55. “Reasonable accommodation” as defined under Section 2(y) means:
A) Constructing new schools
B) Making necessary adjustments without disproportionate burden
C) Free hostel for all disabled persons
D) Separate classes for disabled students
✅ Answer: B) Making necessary adjustments without disproportionate burden
Explanation: Ensures persons with disabilities enjoy equal rights by suitable modification of environment.
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56. “Universal design” refers to:
A) Architectural plans for hospitals
B) Design usable by all people without need for adaptation
C) Design only for visually impaired
D) Design used in government offices
✅ Answer: B) Design usable by all people without need for adaptation
Explanation: Section 2(ze) defines it as design of products and environments usable by all, ensuring accessibility.
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57. Section 4 deals specifically with:
A) Women and children with disabilities
B) Disabled employees
C) Healthcare
D) Rehabilitation
✅ Answer: A) Women and children with disabilities
Explanation: Section 4 mandates equal rights and protection for women and children with disabilities.
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58. Section 5 guarantees the right to:
A) Community life
B) Education
C) Health
D) Legal aid
✅ Answer: A) Community life
Explanation: Section 5 ensures persons with disabilities can live independently within the community.
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59. Protection from being subjected to research without consent is ensured under:
A) Section 4
B) Section 6
C) Section 7
D) Section 9
✅ Answer: B) Section 6
Explanation: Section 6(2) prohibits research on persons with disabilities without free and informed consent.
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60. Under Section 7(2), who can inform the Executive Magistrate about incidents of abuse or exploitation?
A) Only family members
B) Only NGOs
C) Any person or registered organization
D) Police officer only
✅ Answer: C) Any person or registered organization
Explanation: Section 7(2) allows anyone with reasonable belief to report such acts to the Executive Magistrate.
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61. “Access to justice” is guaranteed under which section?
A) Section 11
B) Section 12
C) Section 13
D) Section 14
✅ Answer: B) Section 12
Explanation: Section 12 ensures equal access to courts, tribunals, and quasi-judicial bodies.
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62. “Legal capacity” under Section 13 includes the right to:
A) Vote only
B) Own and inherit property, control finances, and access credit
C) Receive free legal aid only
D) Receive grants
✅ Answer: B) Own and inherit property, control finances, and access credit
Explanation: Section 13(1) ensures persons with disabilities enjoy legal capacity on an equal basis.
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63. “Designated authority” under Section 14(1) may grant:
A) Full guardianship
B) Limited guardianship
C) No guardianship
D) Institutional custody
✅ Answer: B) Limited guardianship
Explanation: Section 14 establishes a system of limited guardianship operating on mutual understanding and trust.
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64. Under Section 16, education of children who are blind or deaf must be imparted in:
A) Hindi
B) English
C) Most appropriate languages and modes of communication
D) Only sign language
✅ Answer: C) Most appropriate languages and modes of communication
Explanation: Section 16(v) directs teaching in suitable formats, including sign language or Braille.
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65. Under Section 17(g), students with benchmark disabilities are entitled to free books and assistive devices up to:
A) Age 14 years
B) Age 16 years
C) Age 18 years
D) Age 21 years
✅ Answer: C) Age 18 years
Explanation: Section 17(g) provides free materials and assistive devices up to the age of 18 years.
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66. Under Section 19, the government shall formulate schemes for:
A) Free housing
B) Vocational training and self-employment
C) Marriage assistance
D) Medical research
✅ Answer: B) Vocational training and self-employment
Explanation: Section 19 mandates government schemes to promote employment and self-reliance.
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67. Section 20(3) specifically provides that:
A) Promotion cannot be denied on ground of disability
B) Disabled persons cannot contest elections
C) Free healthcare shall be provided
D) Disabled persons must retire early
✅ Answer: A) Promotion cannot be denied on ground of disability
Explanation: Section 20(3) ensures equality in promotion and service benefits.
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68. Section 23 requires every Government establishment to appoint:
A) Legal advisor
B) Grievance Redressal Officer
C) Disability counselor
D) Accessibility officer
✅ Answer: B) Grievance Redressal Officer
Explanation: Section 23 ensures complaints of discrimination or non-compliance are properly addressed.
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69. Disability pension under Section 24 is subject to:
A) Age limit
B) Income ceiling as notified
C) Employment duration
D) Medical certificate from private doctor
✅ Answer: B) Income ceiling as notified
Explanation: Section 24(g) — disability pension available within prescribed income limits.
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70. Section 25(2)(f) directs measures for:
A) Tax exemptions
B) Pre-natal, perinatal, and post-natal care
C) Free railway passes
D) Education scholarships
✅ Answer: B) Pre-natal, perinatal, and post-natal care
Explanation: To prevent occurrence of disabilities through better maternal and child care.
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71. Section 26 provides for:
A) Housing schemes
B) Insurance schemes for employees with disabilities
C) Tax rebates for caregivers
D) Rehabilitation loans
✅ Answer: B) Insurance schemes for employees with disabilities
Explanation: Governments must notify insurance schemes for their employees with disabilities.
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72. Section 27(2) allows government to grant financial assistance to:
A) Private companies
B) Political parties
C) Non-governmental organizations
D) Religious institutions
✅ Answer: C) Non-governmental organizations
Explanation: NGOs working in rehabilitation may receive grants.
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73. Under Section 29, the government shall take measures to promote participation in:
A) Politics
B) Cultural life and recreation
C) Religious ceremonies
D) Industrial work
✅ Answer: B) Cultural life and recreation
Explanation: Section 29 ensures equal participation in arts, culture, and recreation.
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74. Section 30 directs governments and sports authorities to:
A) Provide exclusive games for men
B) Ensure effective participation in sporting activities
C) Restrict access to sports
D) Exempt sports funding
✅ Answer: B) Ensure effective participation in sporting activities
Explanation: Section 30(1) recognises sports as a right and mandates inclusion and accessibility.
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75. Free education for children with benchmark disabilities is ensured under:
A) Section 31
B) Section 32
C) Section 33
D) Section 35
✅ Answer: A) Section 31
Explanation: Section 31 guarantees free education from 6 to 18 years in neighbourhood or special schools.
Excellent 👍
Here’s the final set (Q76–100) of detailed legal MCQs with answers and explanations on The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 — completing your 100-question compilation.
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📘 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 — MCQs (Set 4 : Q76–100)
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76. Under Section 32(2), persons with benchmark disabilities are entitled to an upper age relaxation of:
A) 3 years
B) 4 years
C) 5 years
D) 7 years
✅ Answer: C) 5 years
Explanation: Section 32(2) grants an upper age relaxation of five years for admission to higher educational institutions.
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77. Section 33 mandates that the appropriate government shall:
A) Identify posts suitable for reservation
B) Provide extra salaries
C) Construct new offices
D) Provide free housing
✅ Answer: A) Identify posts suitable for reservation
Explanation: Section 33 directs the identification and periodic review of posts for persons with benchmark disabilities.
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78. Under Section 34(1), reservation in Government employment shall not be less than:
A) 2%
B) 3%
C) 4%
D) 5%
✅ Answer: C) 4%
Explanation: 4% of total vacancies are reserved for persons with benchmark disabilities in every Government establishment.
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79. Section 34 divides 4% reservation into how many categories of disabilities?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
✅ Answer: D) Five
Explanation: Clauses (a)–(e) of Section 34(1) cover five categories such as blindness, hearing impairment, locomotor, intellectual, and multiple disabilities.
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80. Section 35 empowers governments to provide incentives to:
A) Disabled persons
B) Private sector employers employing persons with benchmark disabilities
C) State advisory boards
D) Health departments
✅ Answer: B) Private sector employers employing persons with benchmark disabilities
Explanation: To encourage inclusive hiring, the government may give incentives under Section 35.
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81. Under Section 36, employers must furnish information on vacancies to:
A) Chief Commissioner
B) Employment Exchange
C) NITI Aayog
D) Central Government directly
✅ Answer: B) Employment Exchange
Explanation: Section 36 provides that employers shall furnish vacancy data to Special Employment Exchanges.
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82. Section 37 provides for 5% reservation in which of the following?
A) Government jobs only
B) Poverty alleviation and development schemes
C) Tax benefits
D) Judicial services
✅ Answer: B) Poverty alleviation and development schemes
Explanation: 5% reservation in housing, agricultural land, and development programmes is mandated.
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83. Section 38 deals with:
A) Protection from violence
B) Persons with disabilities having high support needs
C) Employment exchange
D) Research and development
✅ Answer: B) Persons with disabilities having high support needs
Explanation: Section 38 establishes procedures for providing necessary “high support” through Assessment Boards.
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84. The main function of the Assessment Board under Section 38(3) is to:
A) Provide financial grants
B) Assess and certify high support needs
C) Impose penalties
D) Approve rehabilitation centres
✅ Answer: B) Assess and certify high support needs
Explanation: The Assessment Board evaluates and certifies the nature of support required.
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85. Section 39(2)(a) emphasizes promotion of:
A) Tolerance, empathy, and inclusion
B) Charity for disabled persons
C) Free transportation
D) Religious instruction
✅ Answer: A) Tolerance, empathy, and inclusion
Explanation: Awareness campaigns must foster values of inclusion and empathy.
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86. Under Section 40, the Central Government must formulate:
A) Rules for accessibility standards
B) National budget for disability welfare
C) Special courts
D) NGO registration process
✅ Answer: A) Rules for accessibility standards
Explanation: Section 40 mandates formulation of accessibility standards for environment, transport, and communication.
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87. Section 42(ii) ensures that persons with disabilities have access to:
A) Internet games
B) Electronic media with sign language and subtitles
C) Private TV channels only
D) Radio commentary only
✅ Answer: B) Electronic media with sign language and subtitles
Explanation: Section 42(ii) provides for accessible formats such as captions and sign interpretation.
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88. Under Section 44, no building can receive completion certificate unless:
A) It follows municipal rules
B) It adheres to accessibility norms
C) It is government funded
D) It is eco-friendly
✅ Answer: B) It adheres to accessibility norms
Explanation: Section 44(2) prohibits occupation without compliance with accessibility rules.
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89. Section 45 requires all public buildings to be made accessible within:
A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 5 years
D) 10 years
✅ Answer: C) 5 years
Explanation: Accessibility to existing infrastructure must be ensured within five years of notification.
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90. Section 46 sets time limits for accessibility by:
A) Service providers (Government or private)
B) Educational institutions
C) NGOs
D) Courts
✅ Answer: A) Service providers (Government or private)
Explanation: They must comply with accessibility standards within two years from notification.
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91. Under Section 47(1)(a), training on disability rights must be included in:
A) Police and judicial training programmes
B) Business management courses only
C) Private hospital induction
D) Engineering curriculum exclusively
✅ Answer: A) Police and judicial training programmes
Explanation: Section 47(1)(a) mandates training for legislators, administrators, and police/judicial officials.
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92. Section 48 mandates:
A) Annual census of disabled persons
B) Social audit of schemes involving persons with disabilities
C) Free health insurance
D) Review of judiciary
✅ Answer: B) Social audit of schemes involving persons with disabilities
Explanation: To ensure that schemes meet the needs and do not harm the interests of persons with disabilities.
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93. Section 49 empowers State Governments to appoint:
A) Chief Commissioner
B) Competent authority for registration of institutions
C) State Commissioner for Employment
D) Advisory board chairperson
✅ Answer: B) Competent authority for registration of institutions
Explanation: Section 49 gives this power to each State Government.
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94. Section 52 provides for:
A) Revocation of registration of institutions
B) Suspension of disability pension
C) Cancellation of certificates of disability
D) Amendment of the Act
✅ Answer: A) Revocation of registration of institutions
Explanation: Institutions violating rules or conditions can have registration revoked after inquiry.
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95. Under Section 55, the Government may provide:
A) Funds to private companies
B) Financial assistance to registered institutions
C) Grants to universities abroad
D) Pension to retired employees
✅ Answer: B) Financial assistance to registered institutions
Explanation: Enables registered institutions to provide services under government schemes.
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96. Section 57(1) empowers which authority to designate certifying authorities?
A) Central Government
B) Appropriate Government
C) District Magistrate
D) Chief Commissioner
✅ Answer: B) Appropriate Government
Explanation: “Appropriate Government” designates qualified persons as certifying authorities.
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97. Section 60(2)(r)(ii) requires that among the ten nominated members of the Central Advisory Board, at least how many must be women?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
✅ Answer: C) 5
Explanation: At least five of the nominated members must be women, and at least one each from SC and ST.
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98. Section 65(f) empowers the Central Advisory Board to:
A) Conduct examinations
B) Monitor and evaluate laws, policies, and programmes
C) Issue disability certificates
D) Appoint special courts
✅ Answer: B) Monitor and evaluate laws, policies, and programmes
Explanation: Ensures full participation and effective implementation of disability-related provisions.
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99. Section 92 provides for punishment of atrocities such as:
A) Insult, intimidation, or denying access to public places
B) Tax evasion
C) Theft of property
D) Traffic violation
✅ Answer: A) Insult, intimidation, or denying access to public places
Explanation: Section 92 treats such acts as cognizable offences with imprisonment and fines.
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100. The Schedule attached to the Act specifies:
A) List of State Commissioners
B) 21 categories of specified disabilities
C) Budget allocations for disability welfare
D) Rules for grievance redressal
✅ Answer: B) 21 categories of specified disabilities
Explanation: The Schedule enumerates all recognized disabilities including autism, cerebral palsy, and thalassemia.
